someone explain dual agonist to me like I have not read a paper in years
Genuine question, and the title is the question: someone explain dual agonist to me like I have not read a paper in years.
Came off sema and onto tirz with a two-week gap. The first month was flat and I assumed I had made a mistake. Month two it moved.
Held 7.5 for five months. Everyone kept asking when I was going to 10. The answer was never, because 7.5 was working.
The distribution matters more than the mean. In the trial population the interquartile spread was wide enough that two honest people can have completely different runs on the same arm.
Happy to answer the boring questions. Those are usually the ones worth asking.
best — the order this archive was captured in
The four-week interval in the label is a minimum. Nothing about the pharmacology requires you to step on schedule, and the trials stepped on a calendar because trials have to.
the trials titrated on a calendar, real people titrate on symptoms
the trials titrated on a calendar, real people titrate on symptoms
Agreed, with one qualifier: that is the mean of the top arm and the spread around it was enormous.
the appetite effect is blunter than sema, in a good way, most weeks
It is a dual GIP and GLP-1 receptor agonist, and the GIP arm is the part that has no equivalent in the semaglutide threads. That is why the side-effect profile reads differently rather than just milder.
The 21% figure is a 72-week mean on the highest arm. Quoting it as what someone should expect by week 49 is not a fair reading.
Yes — 10mg being a genuine landing place for a lot of people is underrated. There is no medal for 15.
Vials and pens carry the same molecule; what differs is fill volume, device tolerance and whether you are doing your own arithmetic. Neither is inherently more accurate.
Agree. The GIP component is the interesting half and it barely gets discussed outside c/glp1science.
switching from sema is not a dose conversion, there is no clean equivalence
Pen or vial? The step sizes available differ and it changes this answer.
Do muscle cramps follow the day after the shot, or is it spread across the week?
pens and vials are the same molecule, the price is the difference
20kg over 46 weeks, never went past 10mg, and fatigue stayed mild the whole way. Posting because the loud threads are all 15mg.
20kg over 46 weeks, never went past 10mg, and fatigue stayed mild the whole way.
amara_halonen is right that the two molecules are not interchangeable. There is no published conversion and the ones circulating are invented.
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Appetite effect for me is flat across seven days. On sema it was a wave. Same person, different molecule.
The thing nobody warned me about was how much of this is logistics — storing it, remembering it, the same day every week.
Push back: "gentler than sema" is a population statement. Plenty of people on this board have the opposite experience and they are not doing it wrong.
Push back: "gentler than sema" is a population statement.
Saving this one. It is the clearest statement of the stall problem I have read here.
Not sure that follows. You went up a step and changed your training in the same fortnight.
Not sure that follows.
This. The step interval is a floor, and reading it as a timetable is the most expensive mistake in the thread.
stepping every four weeks is a ceiling on speed, not a schedule you must hit
zepbound and mounjaro are the same compound with different labels
SURMOUNT-1 landed around 21% at 72 weeks on the top arm
Weekly dosing again, half-life in the same neighbourhood as sema, so a step change takes about a month to reach steady state. Judging a new step at day five is judging noise.
- 1The thing nobody warned me about was how much of this is logistics — storing…7 comments in this branch · started by u/discount_math_dm
- 2The four-week interval in the label is a minimum. Nothing about the…6 comments in this branch · started by u/emil_wojcik